The US government announced it is conducting a thorough
review of the permanent resident cards of individuals from certain countries as
part of an internal review triggered by the attack on two National Guard
members registered in Washington, D.C.
When asked about the scope of this review and which
countries are considered to be of “special concern,” U.S. Citizenship and
Immigration Services (USCIS) referred to a presidential proclamation issued in
June, which lists 19 nations subject to enhanced security assessments.
According to a CNN report, these countries are: Afghanistan, Burma, Chad,
Republic of the Congo, Equatorial Guinea, Eritrea, Haiti, Iran, Libya, Somalia,
Sudan, Yemen, Burundi, Cuba, Laos, Sierra Leone, Togo, Turkmenistan, and
Venezuela.
Although authorities have not detailed the specific criteria
that will be applied during this review, federal officials indicated that the
goal is to strengthen security protocols and detect potential inconsistencies
in immigration records, especially in contexts where additional verification is
required. The measure has generated debate among immigration policy experts,
who warn that this type of mass review could have legal and humanitarian
repercussions for thousands of permanent residents.
The review is part of a series of actions undertaken by
various federal agencies in the wake of the attack, while the investigation
continues to determine all the circumstances surrounding the incident and its
potential national security implications.